Some articles say that naive Bayes is naive because of "independence of attributes". Whereas others say "independence of attributes within a class". Can anybody please clear this confusion? Thanks
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Naive Bayes doesn't assume independence of attributes ... It assumes conditional independence (or what you call independence within a class). This allows us to write the likelihood in the bayes rule P(X | Y) as the product of all P(Xi | Y), where X = (X1, ... Xi, ... Xn) and n is the number of attributes.
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Samyer is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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